1. Om deals with -
2. One of the example of pure service:
3. Objectives of operations management can be categorized into:
4. One of the objective of operation management is:
5. Principal function of customer service are:
6. Conversion of inputs into outputs is known as:
7. The desired objective of Production and Operations Management is:
8. Which one of the following is not an activity under productions and operations management?
9. Operations management is concerned essentially with the utilization of resources. Utilisation of resources means:
10. Which one of the following is not an objective of Operations Management?
11. Productions and Operations Management distinguishes itself from other functions such as personnel, marketing, finance, etc. mainly by its primary concern:
12. Four dimensions of competitiveness that measure the effectiveness of the operations function are:
13. Generally the size of the order for production in Job production is:
14. The desired objective of Production and Operations Management is:
15. To decide work load for men and machines:
16. The act of assessing the future and make provisions for it is known as:
17. The time horizon selected for forecasting depends on:
18. Important factor in forecasting production is:
19. Application of technology or process to the raw material to add use value is known as:
20. In Production by disintegration the material undergoes:
21. Use of any process or procedure designed to transform a set of input elements into a set of output elements is known as:
22. Which one of the following is the external factor impacting effective capacity?
23. Increasing capacity utilisation depends on:
24. Which one of the following is not within the purview of Long Range planning?
25. The basic difference between slack and float time is that:
26. Which one of the following is not a factor in determining Economic Lot Size for manufacturing?
27. Which one of the following is not a factor in planning service capacity?
28. It is extra capacity used to offset demand uncertainty. This is:
29. Which one of the following is correct?
30. Leading capacity strategy:
31. Which one of the following does not reduce effective capacity?
32. Which one of the following is an operational factor that determines effective capacity?
33. Which one of the following is not a factor impacting effective capacity?
34. Benefits of high utilisation are realised only when:
35. Key to improving capacity utilisation is:
36. Utilisation of an operation facility is measured by:
37. Efficiency of an operation facility is measured by:
38. Out of Balance Capacity occurs:
39. The goal of capacity planning of an organisation is:
40. Capacity refers to:
41. This denotes the highest output established by the actual trial runs of the productive machines installed. This is:
42. Which one of the following is not a key question in Capacity planning?
43. Capacity Utilisation is:
44. Actual Output cannot exceed effective capacity because of:
45. Need for periodic maintenance of equipment always makes:
46. If design capacity is reduced by allowances such as personal time and maintenance, the resultant capacity is:
47. This capacity is the maximum rate of output achieved under ideal conditions. This is:
48. Which one of the following is an output measure of Capacity?
49. Which one of the following is a feature of input measure of capacity?
50. Which one of the following is not a feature of output measure of capacity?
51. Which one of the following is a feature of wait and see strategy?
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of expansionist strategy?
53. The capacity cushion is:
54. Capacity decisions are strategic because:
55. Capacity decisions often involve:
56. Long-term capacity plans are concerned with:
57. Capacity planning procedure does not involve which one of the following?
58. Which one of the following is not affected by Capacity decisions?
59. Capacity planning is a:
60. Which one of the following is the result of excess capacity?
61. Aggregate Resource Planning becomes a challenge when demand fluctuates over the planning horizon. Under this case which one of the following is correct?
62. The four step systematic approach to plan for long term capacity decisions does not involve:
63. In operation sequence if capacity of a facility is lower than the capacities of other facilities in the sequence it is:
64. Which one of the following is not an objective of MRP?
65. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Aggregate Planning?
66. Which one of the following is correct with respect to long range forecast?
67. The card which is prepared by the dispatching department to book the labour involved in each operation is:
68. One of the product examples for Line Layout is:
69. The following establishes time sequence of operations:
70. The act of going round the production shop to note down the progress of work and feedback the information is known as:
71. In aggregate planning one of the methods used to modification of supply is:
72. In aggregate planning, one of the methods in modification of demand is:
73. One of the requirements of Aggregate Planning is:
74. The study of relationship between the load on hand and capacity of the work centers is known as:
75. Scheduling deals with:
76. Scheduling shows:
77. Final stage of production planning, where production activities are coordinated and projected on a time scale is known as:
78. (Total station time/Cycle time × Number of work stations) × 100 is known as:
79. In solving a problem on LOB, the number of workstations required is given by:
80. Number of product varieties that can be manufactured in Mass production is:
81. Generally in continuous production the production is carried out to:
82. Inventory cost per product in intermittent production is:
83. The material handling cost per unit of product in Continuous production is:
84. Routing and Scheduling becomes relatively complicated in:
85. Number of product varieties that can be manufactured in Job production is:
86. In general number of product varieties that can be manufactured in Flow production is:
87. Generally the size of the order for production in Job production is:
88. For a marketing manager, the sales forecast is:
89. Most suitable layout for Job production is:
90. Most suitable layout for Continuous production is:
91. One of the important basic objectives of Inventory management is:
92. MRP stands for:
93. In route sheet or operation layout, one has to show:
94. A steel plant has a design capacity of 50,000 tons of steel per day, effective capacity of 40,000 tons of steel per day and actual output of 36,000 tons of steel per day. Compute the efficiency of the plant.
95. A firm has four work centres A, B, C & D, in series with individual capacities in units per day shown below: raw material A - 380, B - 360, C - 340, D - 400. Actual output is 300, what is the efficiency of the system?
96. The monthly requirement of raw material for a company is 3000 units. The carrying cost is estimated to be 20% of the purchase price per unit, in addition to Rs 2 per unit. The purchase price of raw material is Rs 20 per unit. The ordering cost is Rs 25 per order. You are required to find EOQ.
97. EOQ is 102 units, maximum usage 200 units, maximum delivery period 8 weeks, minimum usage 50 units, minimum delivery period 6 weeks, calculate maximum level of stock.
98. M/s Kobo Bearing Ltd is committed to supply 24,000 bearings per annum to M/s Deluxe fans on a steady daily basis. It is estimated that it costs 10 paisa as inventory holding cost per bearing per month and that the setup cost per run of bearing manufacture is Rs 324. What is the optimum run size for bearing manufacture?
99. In general, medium range forecasting period will be approximately:
100. To plan for future manpower requirement:
101. Long range forecasting is useful in:
102. Medium range forecasting is useful in:
103. To decide workload for men and machines:
104. For production planning:
105. Monthly demand for a component is 1000 units. Setting-up cost per batch is Rs 120. Cost of manufacture per unit is Rs 20. Rate of interest may be considered at 10% p.a. Calculate the EBQ.
106. Daily demand for a certain product is normally distributed with a mean of 60 and standard deviation of 7. The source of supply is reliable and maintains a constant lead time of six days. The cost of placing the order is Rs ```html 10 and annual holding costs are Rs 0.50 per unit. There are no stock out costs, and unfilled orders are filled as soon as the order arrives. Assume sales occur over the entire 365 days of the year. Find the order quantity.
107. Consider the following item that is being managed using a fixed time period model with safety stock. Weekly demand (d) = 50 units, Review cycle (T) = 3 weeks, Safety stock (SS) = 30 units. What are the average inventory turns for the item?
108. Addition of value to raw materials through application of technology is:
109. Cost reduction can be achieved through:
110. Production control is concerned with:
111. The starting point of the Production cycle is:
112. Variety reduction is generally known as:
113. Preferred numbers are used to:
114. There are ______ stages of Design thinking.
115. Generally in continuous production the production is carried out to:
116. The material handling cost per unit of product in Continuous production is:
117. Routing and Scheduling becomes relatively complicated in:
118. In Process Planning we plan:
119. In Operation Planning:
120. One of the important production documents is:
121. The scope of Production Planning and Control is:
122. Which one of the following product is not suitable for flow shop scheduling?
123. Which one of the following is a Sequencing rule for single facility?
124. The main question in an assignment problem is:
125. Linear Programming is a technique used for determining:
126. In a linear programming model feasible solution is:
127. Which one of the following is not a limitation of linear programming model?
128. Which of the following is not a method for solving Assignment problem?
129. Simulation is the representation of a real life situation by different means. It is popular because:
130. In sequencing it is the difference between the time remaining to due date and the remaining processing time. It is:
131. Selection of plant location is influenced by few factors. Which one of the following is not a factor?
132. In a queuing system, the speed with which service is provided can be expressed in either of two ways—
133. The most powerful and popular method for solving linear programming problem is:
134. One of the important charts used in Programme control is:
135. Issuing necessary orders, and taking necessary steps to ensure that the time targets set in the schedules are effectively achieved is known as:
136. Arrangement of machines depending on sequence of operations happens in:
137. Computers are used in Production control in this area:
138. Z-chart can be used to show:
139. ‘Z’ chart is a chart used in:
140. One of the activities of expediting is:
141. When work centers are used in optimal sequence to do the jobs, we can:
142. The way in which we can assess the efficiency of the production plant is by:
143. The first stage of Production control is:
144. Production planning in the intermediate range of time is termed as:
145. One of the principles of Scheduling is:
146. One of the aims of loading is:
147. The cycle time selected in balancing a line must be:
148. In solving a problem on LOB, the number of workstations required is given by:
149. Production planning deals with:
150. The first stage in production planning is:
151. In Process Planning we plan:
152. Economies of scale occurs when:
153. In an organisation the production planning and control department comes under:
154. In Job production system, we need:
155. Wanda’s Car Wash & dry is an automatic, five-minute operation with a single bay. On a typical Saturday morning, cars arrive at a mean rate of eight per hour, with arrivals tending to follow a Poisson distribution. Find the average time cars spend in line and service.
156. A departmental store has one cashier. During the rush hours, customers arrive at a rate of 20 per hour. The average number of customers that can be handled by the cashier is 24 per hour. Assume the conditions for use of the single-channel queuing model. Find out average customer spends in the system.
157. As a tool service centre the arrival rate is two per hour and the service potential is three per hour. Simple queue conditions exist. The hourly wage paid to the attendant at the service centre is ₹1.50 per hour and the hourly cost of a machinist away from his work is ₹4. Calculate: The average time a machinist spends waiting for service.
158. The act of going round the production shop to note down the progress of work and feedback the information is known as:
159. Line of Best fit is another name given to:
160. JIT stands for:
161. The lead-time is the time:
162. Before thinking of routing, the production planner has to:
163. The quantities for which the planner has to prepare production plan are known as:
164. The document, which is used to show planning quantity standards and production plan, is known as:
165. The study of relationship between the load on hand and capacity of the work centers is known as:
166. The method used in scheduling a project is:
167. Production planning in the intermediate range of time is termed as:
168. The act of releasing the production documents to production department is known as:
169. The way in which we can assess the efficiency of the production plant is by:
170. Production control is concerned with:
171. Which one of the following is not a factor affecting productivity?
172. Which one of the following is not correct?
173. Which one of the following is not a factor for determination of effective capacity?
174. A device of expressing the ratio between outputs and the inputs of the resources in numerical terms is named as:
175. Most important benefit to the consumer from an efficient production system is:
176. In Continuous manufacturing system, we need:
177. The best way of improving the productivity of capital is:
178. There are two industries A and B manufacturing hose couplings. The standard time per piece is 15 minutes. The output of two small scale industries is 30 and 20 respectively per shift of 8 hours. Find the productivity of each per shift of 8 hours.
179. Calculate the standard production per shift of 8 hours duration, with the following data: Observed time per unit = 5 minutes, Rating Factor -120%, Total allowances = 30% of normal time.
180. ISO 9004 only establishes guidelines related to:
181. For Quality Assurance in Design, Production, Installation, and Servicing the _____ model is used.
182. For Quality Assurance in Production and Installation the _____ model is used.
183. For Quality Assurance in Final Inspection Test the _____ model is used.
184. A cement factory in Madhya Pradesh works 7 days a week in 3 shifts per day having maintenance in the first shift of around 2 hours. It has roughly 100 workers which produces only pozzolanic properties cement better known as PPC. The output per month is around 2500 tonnes of PPC. Find the productivity per worker?
185. The difference between product system and project system is:
186. Fixing the flow lines of materials in production is known as:
187. The activity of specifying when to start the job and when to end the job is known as:
188. A network:
189. While evaluating existing or proposed service systems, operation manager:
190. Probabilistic time is divided into:
191. Gantt Chart is a principal tool used in:
192. The event from where more than one activity starts:
193. Free float means or is equal to:
194. The critical path analysis is an important tool in production planning and:
195. Final stage of production planning, where production activities are coordinated and projected on a time scale is known as:
196. One of the principles of Scheduling is:
197. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
198. With reference to project management, identify which of the following statement is NOT correct?
199. Issuing necessary orders, and taking necessary steps to ensure that the time targets set in the schedules are effectively achieved is known as:
200. Which one of the following is the benefit of keeping standby machines?
201. Preventive maintenance is useful in reducing:
202. When work centers are used in optimal sequence to do the jobs, we can:
203. Preventive maintenance policy is justified only when:
204. Which one of the following is not correct?
205. Production department or maintenance department depending on the size of the plant generally takes up:
206. The main problem in maintenance analysis is to:
207. In some cases the __________ and inconvenience due to breakdown of equipment is so high that standby equipment is kept.
208. ____________ while the equipment is running or during pre-planned shut-downs.
209. Which one of the following is NOT the advantage of Preventive Maintenance?
210. Identify which one of the following is NOT the objective of the maintenance:
211. One of the objectives of maintenance is:
212. The monitoring, evaluating and disseminating of information from the external and internal environments to key people within the organisation is called:
213. The _______ of a company state how managers and employees should conduct themselves.
214. ____________ are the day-to-day way in which an organisation operates and can be seen by people both inside and outside the organisation.
215. Which among the following provide the standards for performance appraisal?
216. ___________ is concerned with complexity arising out of ambiguous and non-routine situations with organisation wide rather than operation-specific implications.
217. ____________ refer to the job-specific goals of each individual employee.
218. The balanced score card is a _______ approach to performance management.
219. This_____ provides the broad ‘data’ from which to identify key drivers of change.
220. Environment is__________.
221. ________are the growth rate of the economy, interest rates, currency exchange rates, and inflation (or deflation) rates.
222. _________are outcomes of changes in the characteristics of a population.
223. What describes the categories of activities within and around an organisation, which together create a product or service?
224. _________transform these inputs into the final product or service.
225. ____________includes those activities that enhance or maintain the value of product or service, such as installation, repair, training and spares.
226. ____________are companies that are not currently competing in an industry, but have the capability to do so if they choose.
227. Absolute cost advantages arise from:
228. A ________ is a business unit in a growing market, but not yet with high market share.
229. A______________is a combination of structures which could take the form of product and geographical divisions or functional and divisional structures operating in tandem.
230. A_________combines the local responsiveness of the international subsidiary with the coordination advantages found in global product companies.
231. Which among the following is true?
232. A____________ is one where teams are created, undertake the work and are then dissolved.
233. _______specifies what is to be accomplished by focusing on the end result.
234. ____________is control achieved through the establishment of a comprehensive system of rules and procedures to direct the actions of divisions, functions, and individuals.
235. _______checks systemically and continuously whether the assumptions on which the strategy is based are still valid.
236. A________is based on the primary activities that have to be undertaken by an organisation.
237. This test is a catch-all category, indicating that the structure must fit legal, stakeholder, trade union or similar constraints.
238. In a fast-moving world, an important test to determine the extent to which a design will allow for change in the future is called?
239. Digital transformation drives change in:
240. The process of _________ requires coordination across the entire organization, and involves business culture changes.
241. Categorising and organising the digitised data and making it ready for application of further processes is called__________.
242. Which among the following is not a characteristic of Big Data?
243. Data that can be stored, accessed and processed in the form of fixed format is called:
244. Which among the following is not a component of a blockchain?
245. Which among the following alternatives is not suited for Robotic process automation tools?
246. _____________is similar to referral programs.
247. ____________is a form of paid advertising that allows marketing teams to essentially purchase traffic to their website.
248. Forecasting the weather is an example of: